a. The medication regimen can be changed to include long-acting injectable medication instead of oral medication to improve the client’s compliance with the medications. It can be given every two weeks rather than every day, ensuring the client takes the medication, and there is no need for daily medication administration.
b. Explain the administration considerations for the prescribed medications. (Use a drug handbook or use a reference page(s) from the Timby textbook.)Invega (paliperidone) is used to treat schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder. It is an antipsychotic medication that functions by balancing the levels of dopamine and serotonin in the brain. Paliperidone is available in extended-release tablets in dosages ranging from 1.5 mg to 12 mg. The suggested starting dose is 6 mg per day. It should be taken once a day, with or without food. It must be swallowed whole and should not be chewed, divided, or crushed.
Cogentin (benztropine) is an anticholinergic medication that is used to alleviate Parkinsonism and extrapyramidal disorders caused by antipsychotic medications such as Invega. It helps to minimize involuntary movements, tremors, and rigidity. Benztropine is available in 0.5-mg and 1-mg tablets and is taken orally. The usual dosage range is 2 mg to 6 mg per day, divided into two or three doses. It should be taken at the same time every day, with or without meals.
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A 2-year-old child weighing 32 pounds is to take ferrous sulfate (feosol) 6 mg/kg/d po. how many milligram will the child receive per dose?
Since we assumed the dosage is once a day, the child will receive 87 mg per dose.
Therefore, the child will receive 87 mg per dose of ferrous sulfate (Feosol).
To calculate the dosage of ferrous sulfate (Feosol) for a 2-year-old child weighing 32 pounds, we need to convert the weight to kilograms.
1 pound is approximately 0.45 kilograms, so the child weighs approximately 14.5 kilograms (32 pounds × 0.45 kg/pound).
Next, we need to determine the dosage per kilogram. The dosage is 6 mg/kg/day.
So, to find the dosage per dose, we divide the daily dosage by the number of doses per day. In this case, we are not given the number of doses per day. Assuming it is once a day, we will calculate based on that assumption.
The child will receive [tex]6 mg/kg/day × 14.5 kg/day = 87[/tex]mg/day.
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Explain the pathophysiology of Meningococcal septicaemia?
(200-300 words)
Meningococcal septicaemia is a condition that affects the human body in a variety of ways. It occurs when bacteria invade the bloodstream and cause a systemic inflammatory response.
Pathophysiology :
It is a serious illness that can lead to death if not diagnosed and treated early enough. This disease affects people of all ages and is more common in children and young adults.
It is caused by bacteria Neisseria meningitidis
(
meningococcus) enters the bloodstream and starts multiplying.
Once it enters the bloodstream, the bacteria triggers a systemic inflammatory response in the body.
The bacteria produces lipopolysaccharide (LPS) on its cell surface that can trigger an inflammatory respons. It bind to LPS-binding protein and then binds to CD14 which present on the surface of monocytes and macrophages.
Once the LPS binds to CD14, it activates a cascade of events that lead to the release of pro-inflammatory cytokines like interleukin 1 (IL-1) and tumour necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-alpha). The pro-inflammatory cytokines released cause an increase in vascular permeability which results in leakage of fluid and plasma into the tissues.
The plasma leakage is responsible for the characteristic rash seen in the disease. As it progresses, it can lead to multiple organ failure due to the activation of the coagulation cascade due to the presence of endotoxins in the bloodstream
The formation of microclots in the capillaries of various organs. leading to ischemia and infarction of organs finally leads to the failure of multiple organ systems and can ultimately lead to death.
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Which is the correct statement regarding the use of electromagnetic radiation in the treatment of cancer?
A. Low frequency X-rays are used because they kill cancer cells before healthy cells. B. High frequency X-rays are used because they kill cancer cells before healthy cells.
C Low frequency gamma rays are used because they kill cancer cells before healthy cells.
D. High frequency gamma rays are used because they kill cancer cells before healthy cells.
The correct statement regarding the use of electromagnetic radiation in the treatment of cancer is B. High frequency X-rays are used because they kill cancer cells before healthy cells.
In cancer treatment, ionizing radiation, such as X-rays and gamma rays, is utilized to target and destroy cancer cells. The goal is to deliver a sufficient dose of radiation to the tumor while minimizing damage to surrounding healthy tissues.
High frequency X-rays are preferred over low frequency X-rays because they have greater energy and shorter wavelengths. This allows them to penetrate tissues more effectively and deliver a higher dose of radiation to the tumor. The high energy of these X-rays enables them to damage the DNA of cancer cells, impairing their ability to divide and grow.
While healthy cells can also be affected by radiation, they possess some degree of resilience and repair mechanisms that aid in their recovery. The goal of radiation therapy is to strike a balance between eradicating cancer cells and minimizing harm to normal tissues. Treatment plans are carefully designed to deliver the necessary dose while sparing healthy cells as much as possible.
Low frequency gamma rays (option C) are not commonly used in cancer treatment as they have less energy and longer wavelengths, resulting in reduced tissue penetration and lower effectiveness in targeting tumors. High frequency gamma rays (option D) have very short wavelengths and extremely high energy, making them more suitable for sterilization purposes rather than cancer treatment.
Radiation therapy plays a significant role in the treatment of cancer, but it is a complex and specialized field. Understanding the principles of radiation therapy, including the types of radiation used, their interactions with cancer cells and healthy tissues, and the techniques employed to optimize treatment outcomes, is crucial. Further exploration of radiation therapy modalities, including external beam radiation and brachytherapy, can deepen our understanding of how electromagnetic radiation is harnessed to combat cancer.
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estapé t. cancer in the elderly: challenges and barriers. asia pac j oncol nurs. 2018 jan-mar;5(1):40-42. doi: 10.4103/apjon.apjon 52 17. pmid: 29379832; pmcid: pmc5763438
The study focuses on cancer in the elderly since their bodies already create cells at a slower rate than those of younger people, which causes their tumors to grow more slowly.
The necessity to care for parts of primary and secondary ageing increases as we get older. Age-related increases in cancer risk are exponential, and those 65 years of age or older account for nearly 60% of all cancer cases. Additionally, this stage is where around 70% of cancer-related deaths occur. Cancer is a disease of old age as a result. A unique approach is required for the diagnosis, treatment, and survival of senior cancer patients in light of the rise in cancer incidence and the quality of life among the elderly population.
Because older people's bodies already create their cells at a slower rate than those of younger people, their cancer grows more slowly. Nevertheless, according to certain research, older people with tumours have a worse prognosis due to a delayed diagnosis. Therefore, it is important for seniors to obtain the proper mindset and information to fight cancer. As a result, many treatments for cancer or changes to what it means today don't always come as plainly as their personal experiences, which people frequently interpret as the only source of truth. As a result, any health issue or discomfort is readily attributed to becoming older.
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Complete Question:
Explain the study of estapé t. cancer in the elderly: challenges and barriers. asia pac j oncol nurs. 2018 jan-mar;5(1):40-42. doi: 10.4103/apjon.apjon 52 17. pmid: 29379832; pmcid: pmc5763438
4. Which values determine blood pressure and pulse pressure? 5- Briefly describe the events that take place during ventricular filling. 17- What is the difference between the innate and the adaptative immune response? 18- What factors determine ABO and Rh types?
Blood pressure and pulse pressure are determined by systolic and diastolic values. Ventricular filling occurs during diastole. The innate immune response is rapid and non-specific, while the adaptive response is specific and develops over time. ABO and Rh types are determined by specific antigens inherited from parents.
Blood Pressure and Pulse Pressure:Blood Pressure:
Blood pressure is determined by two values: systolic pressure and diastolic pressure. Systolic pressure is the higher value and represents the pressure exerted on the arterial walls when the heart contracts during each heartbeat. Diastolic pressure is the lower value and represents the pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest between beats.
Pulse Pressure:
Pulse pressure is the difference between the systolic and diastolic pressures. It reflects the force generated by the heart during systole and the elasticity of the arterial walls.
Events during Ventricular Filling:Ventricular filling occurs during diastole, the relaxation phase of the cardiac cycle.
Initially, the atria contract (atrial systole), which completes the filling of the ventricles with blood.
The atrioventricular (AV) valves (tricuspid and mitral valves) open, allowing blood to flow from the atria to the ventricles.
As the ventricles expand, blood passively flows from the atria into the ventricles due to the pressure difference.
Towards the end of ventricular filling, the atria relax (atrial diastole), and the ventricles are filled to their maximum capacity.
Difference between Innate and Adaptive Immune Response:Innate Immune Response:
The innate immune response is the first line of defense against pathogens and is present from birth. It provides a rapid, non-specific response to a wide range of pathogens. The key features of the innate immune response include physical barriers (e.g., skin), inflammation, phagocytosis by cells like macrophages, and natural killer (NK) cells.
Adaptive Immune Response:
The adaptive immune response is a specific response to particular pathogens and develops over time. It involves the activation of lymphocytes (B and T cells) that recognize and target specific antigens. The adaptive immune response exhibits memory, allowing the body to mount a stronger and faster response upon subsequent exposure to the same pathogen.
Factors determining ABO and Rh types:ABO Blood Type:
The ABO blood type is determined by the presence or absence of specific antigens (A and B antigens) on the surface of red blood cells. The ABO blood type is inherited from parents, with possible combinations of A, B, AB, or O blood types.
Rh Factor:
The Rh factor refers to a specific antigen (D antigen) present on the surface of red blood cells. An individual is Rh positive (Rh+) if they have the Rh antigen and Rh negative (Rh-) if they lack the antigen. The Rh factor is also inherited, and it is either present or absent based on the combination of alleles inherited from parents.
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A cohort study (n=1200) exploring the association between second-hand smoke
exposure and lung cancer risk found a moderate increase in risk (RR 1.85 p = 0.07).
Which of the following is correct regarding the result?
a) The association may not be true in the study population.
©b) Random sampling error is not occurring in this study.
O c) We can reject the null hypothesis.
O d) The p-value suggests there is no association in the study sample.
A cohort study (n=1200) exploring the association between second-hand smoke exposure and lung cancer risk found a moderate increase in risk (RR 1.85 p = 0.07).
Regarding the result, the following is correct:
a) The association may not be true in the study population.
b) Random sampling error is not occurring in this study.
c) We can reject the null hypothesis.
d) The p-value suggests there is no association in the study sample.
The correct answer is that the association may not be true in the study population.
A p-value is the likelihood of obtaining the observed effect or a more extreme outcome if the null hypothesis is true. If the p-value is less than or equal to 0.05, it is commonly stated that there is a statistically significant effect, and the null hypothesis can be rejected. If the p-value is higher than 0.05, the result is not statistically significant, and the null hypothesis is not rejected.
A p-value of 0.07 is insufficient to reject the null hypothesis in the study sample. A relative risk of 1.85 suggests that the risk of lung cancer among people exposed to second-hand smoke is 1.85 times that of people who have never been exposed to second-hand smoke. However, as the p-value is greater than 0.05, it may indicate that the association is not statistically significant and may not be true in the study population.
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Physical assessment.
1. As a nurse, what are the Introduction procedures including
AIDET for physical assessment
2. Head-to-toe physical assessment
3. What are the Safety checks and procedures you nee
As a nurse, when conducting a physical assessment, the following procedures must be included: Introduction procedures including AIDET for physical assessment: AIDET stands for Acknowledge, Introduce, Duration, Explanation, and Thank you.
As such, it is essential for a nurse to follow these procedures during physical assessments to make patients feel comfortable and at ease. Head-to-toe physical assessment: When conducting a head-to-toe physical assessment, the nurse needs to assess the patient's skin, eyes, ears, nose, mouth, throat, and neck, among other body parts. This will involve taking the patient's vitals such as blood pressure, pulse, respiratory rate, temperature, and heart rate.
The nurse also assesses the abdomen, rectum, and genitourinary system. Safety checks and procedures required:
To ensure patient safety during physical assessment, the nurse should always observe the following: Check the bed's height, making sure it is at the right level to avoid falls. Ensure the call bell is within reach of the patient during the assessment process. Make sure the patient is adequately covered to maintain their privacy and dignity. Ensure the examination room is adequately lit to avoid accidents. Make sure the patient's history and allergy lists are up to date.The nurse should always use clean gloves when assessing patients to reduce the risk of infections.
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True or false, A lower motor neuron has axons outside of the
brain or spinal cord.
True. A lower motor neuron has axons outside of the brain or spinal cord. Lower motor neurons (LMNs) are motor neurons that originate in either the spinal cord or the brainstem and terminate in skeletal muscle fibers.
They're known as lower motor neurons since they are situated further down in the nervous system than upper motor neurons. Lower motor neurons, which include alpha and gamma motor neurons, have axons that run through the spinal cord's anterior horn and outside of it to the target muscles. These axons can be either thick or thin, and they play a significant role in the contraction of muscle fibers. The number of muscle fibers that a single lower motor neuron controls varies from a few to a thousand, depending on the muscle in question.
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A 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department 10 hours after he accidentally ingested an unknown amount of windshield washer fluid. He is confused. He has tachypnea and tachycardia. Physical examination shows hyperemia of both optic discs. Serum studies show an anion gap metabolic acidosis. His serum methanol concentration is 35 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of the toxicity in this patient?
A. Covalent attachment of methanol to protein side chains
B. Methanol-induced denaturation of proteins
C. Methanol-induced disruption of cellular membranes
D. Methanol oxidation
E. Methanol reduction
The most likely mechanism of the toxicity in this patient with symptoms of tachypnea and tachycardia is D.methanol oxidation.
What is methanol poisoning?
Methanol is a toxic chemical that can cause poisoning in humans when ingested, inhaled, or absorbed through the skin. Methanol is a byproduct of wood alcohol and is sometimes used as an alternative to ethanol (also known as grain alcohol). Ethanol is used to make alcoholic beverages, while methanol is used to make solvents and antifreeze. Because it is colorless and odorless, methanol is often mistaken for ethanol, and accidental methanol poisoning can occur as a result. Symptoms of methanol poisoning can range from mild to severe, and can even be life-threatening. Tachypnea and tachycardia are symptoms of methanol poisoning. Methanol poisoning causes tachycardia (rapid heart rate) and tachypnea (rapid breathing) as a result of respiratory and metabolic acidosis. Methanol causes acidosis by being converted to formic acid, which is then converted to carbon dioxide and water.
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Pitocin (oxycotin) at 40 ml/hr. Supplied: One liter bag of normal saline containing 30 units of Pitocin. Directions: Determine how many units of Pitocin the patient is receiving per hour.
Let's take a look at the question:Supplied: One-liter bag of normal saline containing 30 units of Pitocin. Pitocin (oxytocin) at 40 ml/hr.Directions: Determine how many units of Pitocin the patient is receiving per hour.
Pitocin is a medication used to induce labor or improve contractions during childbirth. Pitocin (oxytocin) is a natural hormone produced by the pituitary gland. It induces the uterus to contract, helping labor progress and delivery. It comes as a solution in a 100 mL glass bottle, which contains 10 units of oxytocin per mL.
First, convert the supplied Pitocin to ml; a liter is 1000 ml, and the bag contains 30 units of Pitocin.1000 ml / 30 units = 33.33 ml/u.
Now that we have the concentration of Pitocin per milliliter (33.33 ml/u), we can multiply it by the rate (40 ml/hr).33.33 ml/u x 40 ml/hr = 1333.33 u/hr.
Since there are only 10 units of Pitocin per ml, we must divide our answer by 10.1333.33 u/hr / 10 = 133.33 u/hr.
Therefore, the patient is receiving 1200 units of Pitocin per hour, as a one-liter bag of normal saline contains 30 units of Pitocin.
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When you search in CINAHL, you will find articles that have been tagged with Medical Subject Headings (MeSH). True False
When you search in CINAHL, you will find articles that have been tagged with Medical Subject Headings (MeSH). This statement is true.
The Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature (CINAHL) is an authoritative database for literature on nursing and allied health subjects. This database is used to find and access nursing and allied health articles. CINAHL has an advanced search option, which allows for searching using keywords and Medical Subject Headings (MeSH).
MeSH is a controlled vocabulary used by CINAHL to tag and classify articles. MeSH is made up of terms and descriptors that are used to categorize medical articles according to their subject. MeSH is updated every year to add new terms and descriptors that reflect current research and advancements in medicine. When a user searches for an article using CINAHL, MeSH terms are used to retrieve the relevant articles.
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Right-sided heart failure tends to present with signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema such as "crackles or rales" in the bases of the lungs. True False
The statement "Right-sided heart failure tends to present with signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema such as crackles or rales in the bases of the lungs" is true.
Right-sided heart failure occurs when the right ventricle of the heart is unable to pump blood to the lungs effectively. As a result, blood may back up into the body, causing swelling in the legs, ankles, and abdomen.
Right-sided heart failure typically presents with signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema, such as crackles or rales in the bases of the lungs. It can also lead to fluid accumulation in the legs and feet, as well as swelling in the abdomen.Therefore, the given statement is true as the right-sided heart failure does tend to present with signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema such as crackles or rales in the bases of the lungs.
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"Define in your own words what autonomic dysreflexia is.
Autonomic dysreflexia, often known as hyperreflexia, is a medical emergency that occurs in individuals who have sustained an injury to the spinal cord above the T6 level.
Autonomic dysreflexia is a condition that affects people who have had spinal cord injuries. It's characterized by a sudden spike in blood pressure that can cause headaches, blurred vision, sweating, and other symptoms. It can be caused by something as simple as a full bladder or bowel movement, or it can be brought on by something more serious like a kidney infection or blood clot. There are a variety of symptoms that can occur as a result of autonomic dysreflexia, including sweating above the level of the injury, headache, flushing of the skin above the level of the injury, a stuffy nose, a slower heart rate, high blood pressure. In rare cases, it may cause convulsions or even loss of consciousness. Autonomic dysreflexia is a medical emergency that should be treated immediately. Treatment involves determining the cause of the episode and taking steps to lower blood pressure, such as emptying the bladder or bowel or using medications.
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Hunter is 88 year old , was admitted to the hospital after developing left-sided facial drooping, slurred speech, and confusion last night during brunch with his family. He was taken to the emergency department where imaging of his brain showed a stroke. Hunters past medical history includes hyperlipidemia, hypertension, hypothyroidism, BPH, and atrial fibrillation. The doctor told Hunter and his family that the cause of his stroke was likely his atrial fibrillation. Based on this statement by the doctor, which type of stroke do you suspect Hunter suffered: an ischemic or a hemorrhagic stroke? How can atrial fibrillation cause a stroke? What other factors put Hunter at risk for a stroke?
can you please explain briefly
The type of stroke Hunter suffered. A stroke occurs when blood flow to the brain is interrupted. There are two types of stroke: ischemic stroke and hemorrhagic stroke.
An ischemic stroke is the most frequent type, accounting for approximately 80% of all strokes. The other is a hemorrhagic stroke, which is responsible for the remaining 20%. According to the doctor's statement, Hunter's stroke was caused by atrial fibrillation. Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of ischemic stroke. This occurs because atrial fibrillation causes the blood in the atria to pool, allowing blood clots to form. These clots can travel to the brain, resulting in an ischemic stroke. Based on the doctor's statement, it is most likely that Hunter suffered an ischemic stroke.
Hunter has a number of other health issues that put him at risk for a stroke. These include hyperlipidemia, hypertension, hypothyroidism, and BPH (benign prostatic hyperplasia). These are all risk factors for atherosclerosis, which can lead to ischemic strokes. High blood pressure is one of the leading causes of hemorrhagic strokes. Additionally, because Hunter is 88 years old, his age puts him at risk for a stroke.
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A physician orders ampicillin 0.2 g/kg/d IV to be delivered in divided doses q6h. The patient weighs 110 lb. How many mg are needed per dose? How many grams of ampicillin would the patient receive"
A physician orders ampicillin 0.2 g/kg/d IV to be delivered in divided doses q6h. The patient weighs 110 lb. 10000 mg are needed per dose. 40 grams of ampicillin would the patient receive.
To calculate the amount of ampicillin needed per dose, we first convert the patient's weight from pounds to kilograms. Since 1 lb is approximately 0.45 kg (1 lb / 2.2), we divide the weight of 110 lb by 2.2 to get 50 kg.
Next, we multiply the weight (50 kg) by the prescribed dosage of 0.2 g/kg to find the amount of ampicillin needed per dose. This calculation is 50 kg x 0.2 g/kg = 10 g. To convert grams to milligrams, we multiply by 1000, resulting in 10,000 mg per dose.
For the total amount of ampicillin the patient would receive in a day, we consider the dosing frequency of every 6 hours (q6h), which means the patient will receive the medication 4 times in a day.
Therefore, we multiply the dose per administration (10 g) by the number of doses in a day (4 doses), giving us a total of 40 g of ampicillin the patient would receive in a day.
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Bianca is a 32-year-old sales consultant for a local department store for the past 4 years. She is divorced with two young daughters, 6 and 9 years of age. She is being seen at the clinic for evaluation. The nurse notes a sad affect with no eye contact, no make-up and hair is messy and uncombed. Bianca is teary-eyed and states, "My husband not only left me alone in this world, but left me with all of the bills too. I just can't do this anymore!" 1. "What is the nurse's best response at this point?" 2. What symptoms would support the health care provider's diagnosis of depression? 3. What leading questions might encourage Bianca to continue talking? 4. The provider prescribes the antidepressant drug Escitalopram (Lexapro). What side effects may occur with this drug?
1. In response to Bianca, the best response by the nurse would be to say, "It sounds like you are feeling overwhelmed with your current situation.
2.The following symptoms might support the health care provider's diagnosis of depression: Sad or depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day.
3. What was happening at the time you first started feeling this way? can be a leading question.
4.Some of the side effects that may occur with the antidepressant drug, Insomnia Nausea and vomiting, Headache, Diarrhea.
Brief answers for the question:
A. In response to Bianca, the best response by the nurse would be to say,"It sounds like you are feeling overwhelmed with your current situation. Is there someone you can talk to or is there something that might be helpful to you at this point?" This would encourage Bianca to continue speaking and open up further to the nurse about her condition.
B. The following symptoms might support the health care provider's diagnosis of depression:Sad or depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day. Fatigue, a decrease in energy, or feeling tired all the time. Loss of interest or pleasure in hobbies or activities that were once enjoyed.
C. The nurse may use leading questions such as; What was happening at the time you first started feeling this way? Can you tell me more about what you were experiencing at that time?
D. Some of the side effects that may occur with the antidepressant drug Escitalopram (Lexapro) are:
Insomnia Nausea and vomiting, Headache, Diarrhea, Constipation, Dizziness, Dry mouth, Increased sweating, Increased appetite, Reduced libido, Restlessness, Blurred vision. The above list of side effects is not exhaustive. Please consult with your doctor if you experience any of these side effects or have any questions or concerns about your medications.
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what is the history of dental assistant by summarizing
the chapter one of Modern Dental Assistant text.
Dental assistants are an essential part of dental health care and have a rich history that goes back many years. The chapter one of Modern Dental Assistant text by Doni L. Bird and Debbie S. Robinson explores the history of dental assisting in detail.
Dental assistants were initially known as "Ladies in Attendance," according to the text. It was customary for male dentists to hire women to assist them with dental procedures, including cleaning instruments and preparing materials. This practice continued until the early 20th century, when women began to enter the dental profession on a larger scale. With more women dentists, the role of dental assistants became more specialized and required a higher level of training.
Today, dental assistants perform a wide range of duties, from patient care and chairside assisting to office management and laboratory work. They work alongside dentists and dental hygienists to ensure patients receive the best possible care. Dental assisting is a rewarding and in-demand career that offers a variety of opportunities for those who are passionate about oral health care.
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What are the clinical risk factors in specimen collection and procedures designed to minimise those risks for different specimen types as given below?
The risk for different specimen types includes contamination, misidentification, Hemolysis, Hemorrhage, patient discomfort, or injury.
When it comes to specimen collection, there are various clinical risk factors to consider, regardless of the specimen type. Here are some common risk factors and procedures to minimize those risks:
Contamination:
Risk Factor: Contamination of the specimen by external microorganisms during collection, handling, or transportation.
Minimization Procedure: Proper hand hygiene and wearing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) such as gloves, masks, and gowns. Using sterile collection containers and following aseptic techniques during collection.
Misidentification:
Risk Factor: Incorrect labeling or identification of the specimen, leading to errors in patient diagnosis or treatment.
Minimization Procedure: Accurate and clear labeling of the specimen container with patient identification details. Verifying patient information, such as name and unique identifiers, before collection.
Hemolysis:
Risk Factor: Hemolysis, the rupture of red blood cells, which can alter the composition and validity of the specimen, particularly in blood samples.
Minimization Procedure: Using appropriate collection techniques, such as proper needle insertion, avoiding excessive pressure during collection, and ensuring adequate filling of collection tubes. Proper mixing of blood samples to prevent clotting or hemolysis.
Hemorrhage:
Risk Factor: Excessive bleeding during specimen collection, particularly in invasive procedures or surgical interventions.
Minimization Procedure: Following proper technique and using appropriate devices during invasive procedures. Applying pressure or using hemostatic agents as necessary to control bleeding. Monitoring the patient for signs of bleeding or hematoma formation post-collection.
Patient Discomfort or Injury:
Risk Factor: Discomfort, pain, or injury to the patient during specimen collection.
Minimization Procedure: Using appropriate-sized needles or instruments to minimize pain or tissue trauma. Providing clear instructions to the patient, ensuring their comfort, and addressing any concerns or questions they may have.
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Nurses are taught to, "do no harm." Discuss how medical
professionals who were involved in the Tuskegee study did or did
not adhere to this golden rule?
The medical professionals involved in the Tuskegee study did not adhere to the principle of "do no harm."
The Tuskegee study, conducted between 1932 and 1972, involved withholding treatment from African American men with syphilis to observe the natural progression of the disease.
This study violated several ethical principles, including informed consent, respect for autonomy, and beneficence.
The medical professionals involved failed to provide proper medical care and knowingly allowed harm to be inflicted upon the participants by withholding effective treatment.
By intentionally withholding treatment and concealing information from the participants, the medical professionals violated the fundamental principle of "do no harm." They not only failed to provide the necessary medical intervention but also prolonged the suffering of the participants and allowed the progression of a potentially deadly disease.
This disregard for the well-being and dignity of the individuals involved demonstrates a clear violation of the ethical obligations that medical professionals have to prioritize patient welfare and prevent harm.
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How many grams of dextrose are in the fluid for the label shown? How many minutes will it take to infuse at 2 mL/min? How many drops per minute should be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/
Volume: 500 mL, Dextrose: 5%.How many drops per minute should be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL?
Answer:Grams of dextrose in the fluid:First, we need to find out the amount of dextrose in grams.5% of 500 mL = (5/100) × 500 mL= 25 gSo, there are 25 grams of dextrose in the fluid for the label shown.How many minutes will it take to infuse at 2 mL/min?Time taken = Volume ÷ Flow rate= 500 mL ÷ 2 mL/min= 250 minutesSo, it will take 250 minutes to infuse the given fluid at 2 mL/min.
We need to use the formula,Flow rate = (Volume ÷ Time) × Drop factor= (500 mL ÷ 60 min) × 15 gtt/mL= 125 gtt/minSo, 125 drops per minute should be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL.Explanation:We are given the volume and concentration of dextrose. We calculated the amount of dextrose in grams using concentration and volume.Next, we calculated the time taken to infuse the fluid at a given flow rate.Using the flow rate formula and drop factor, we determined the drops per minute to be administered with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL. The detailed solution is given above.
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Alzheimer's is a cause of dementia. Symptoms usually start at the
age of 60 but can be sooner
1: Define Alzheimer and its symptoms (6 points)
2: How is it treated? Include medication; as well as
nut
Alzheimer's disease is a form of progressive dementia that affects memory, thought, and behavior. Its symptoms are as follows: Difficulty in concentrating; difficulties remembering recent events, names, or faces. There is no cure for Alzheimer's disease, but the drugs available can help manage its symptoms. Some of the medications used in its treatment include; Cholinesterase inhibitors (Aricept, Exelon, Razadyne) Memantine (Namenda) Combination therapies (Namzaric) Healthy lifestyle changes, etc.
1. Alzheimer's disease is a form of progressive dementia that affects memory, thought, and behavior. It affects people aged 65 and up in most cases. Still, it can develop earlier in some individuals. Its symptoms are as follows: Difficulty in concentrating; difficulties remembering recent events, names, or faces. Language and communication difficulties; Impaired reasoning, judgment, and problem-solving skills. Confusion and disorientation; Mood and behavior changes Difficulty with familiar daily tasks
2. Treatment of Alzheimer's and Medication, as well as Nutrition. There is no cure for Alzheimer's disease, but the drugs available can help manage its symptoms. Some of the medications used in its treatment include: Cholinesterase inhibitors (Aricept, Exelon, Razadyne) Memantine (Namenda) Combination therapies (Namzaric) Healthy lifestyle changes, such as regular exercise and a balanced diet, can help to manage Alzheimer's disease and improve the quality of life of individuals affected by it. Nutrition can also play a significant role in the management of Alzheimer's disease. The following are some of the foods that can help: Omega-3 fatty acids can be found in oily fish such as salmon, sardines, and tuna. Vitamin E is found in foods such as nuts, seeds, and vegetable oils. Dark-skinned fruits and vegetables (such as spinach, kale, carrots, berries, and cherries) contain antioxidants that help to improve brain function and protect it from damage caused by free radicals.
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75 year old widow female lives alone with home assistance, she recently fell in bathroom and broke her right dominant hand. Her daughter lives 5 miles away. The elderly woman goes to nearby ER for care. Daughter tells Nurse she has recently been slightly confused and is losing weight. PMH: Obesity, Diabetic type 2, HTN. The daughter asked is it safe for her to be living alone? What can be done to keep her independent and safe? Meds: Hydrochloride 25mg daily Diet: regular Wears glasses Ambulates without cane. Think about safety when writing up your PICOT Question. Should she live alone? Move to Assisted Nursing Home? What are the risks of falls for Elderly? Home Safety? How do we keep senior independent safely at home?
A 75-year-old widow with a history of obesity, type 2 diabetes, and hypertension recently fell and broke her dominant hand. Her daughter is concerned about her mother's safety and independence. Potential PICOT questions focus on fall risk, home safety, and independent living for seniors.
In assessing the situation, it is important to consider the patient's physical limitations, cognitive changes, and recent fall. Falls are a significant risk for the elderly and can result in serious injuries. Home safety becomes crucial in preventing falls and promoting independence. Evaluating the home environment, removing hazards, installing grab bars, and improving lighting can help reduce the risk of falls. Assessing the patient's cognitive function and identifying the underlying cause of confusion and weight loss is also essential.
PICOT questions can be formulated to guide further research and interventions. Examples include: "What are the effective strategies to reduce fall risk in elderly individuals living alone?", "How can home modifications contribute to the safety and independence of seniors?", or "What interventions promote independence and safety for seniors with cognitive decline?"
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A sphincter at the junction of the stomach with the duodenum a. Cardiac sphincter b. lleocecal sphincter c. Pyloric sphincter d. Fundus sphincter
The sphincter at the junction of the stomach with the duodenum is known as the pyloric sphincter. It is situated at the outlet of the stomach, connecting the stomach to the duodenum.
It controls the passage of food from the stomach into the small intestine by regulating the amount of food that is released into the intestine at one time. The pyloric sphincter is made up of a ring of muscle tissue that contracts and relaxes to allow food to pass through. When food enters the stomach, it is broken down into smaller pieces by stomach acids and enzymes. The chyme that is formed by the digestion of food then enters the pyloric sphincter, which allows small amounts of chyme to pass through at a time into the small intestine. This allows for the optimal absorption of nutrients from the food. In summary, the pyloric sphincter controls the passage of food from the stomach into the small intestine and regulates the amount of food that is released into the intestine at one time.
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) Discuss poor EMR/HER implementations in healthcare organizations (5
marks)
B) Discuss potential barriers that might hinder the adoption of EHR/EMR’s in a
healthcare organization C) Problems with the actual EHR/EMR’s D) What are some factors that might affect EHR/EMR’s E) With some of the problems provided in the previous questions you
answered, give examples of how those problems can be changed into
solutions and how you would implement that change within healthcare (5
marks)
A) Poor EMR/EHR implementations can lead to data integrity, and medical security breaches .
B) Potential barriers to EHR/EMR adoption include financial constraints.
C) Problems with actual EHR/EMR systems include interoperability challenges.
D) Factors affecting EHR/EMR systems include vendor selection.
A) Poor EMR/EHR implementations in healthcare organizations can have several concerning implications: Data integrity: Inadequate implementation can lead to errors in data entry or transfer, compromising patient safety and quality of care. Medical security breaches: Unauthorized access to physical areas within medical facilities can lead to the theft of medical equipment, pharmaceuticals, or sensitive documents containing patient information.
B) Potential barriers to EHR/EMR adoption in healthcare organizations may include Financial constraints: The initial cost of implementing an EHR/EMR system, along with ongoing maintenance expenses, can be a significant barrier for healthcare.
C) Problems with actual EHR/EMR systems can include Interoperability challenges: Incompatibility between different EHR/EMR systems can hinder seamless data exchange and integration with other healthcare systems.
D) Factors that can affect EHR/EMR systems include Vendor selection: The choice of EHR/EMR vendor and the level of support provided can influence the success and effectiveness of the system's implementation.
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The correct question is:
Discuss poor EMR/HER implementations in healthcare organizations (explain all).
A. Concerning the poor EMR/HER
B) Discuss potential barriers that might hinder the adoption of EHR/EMRs in a healthcare organization
C) Problems with the actual EHR/EMRs
D) What are some factors that might affect EHR/EMRs
Kiara is a nurse manager at a busy hospital in Chicago, Illinois. A medical error at the facility by one of the nurses recently resulted in the death of a patient. Kiara has been talking with hospital administration about implementing Bar Code Medication Administration (BCMA) to prevent future medication errors. The hospital administration has decided not to implement this technology? Which are common reasons hospital administrators may be opposed to implementing BCMA? Select all that apply.
A. Will create wasteful redundancy
B. Will take too long to install
C. Will require hours of training
D. Will be too expensive
E. Has not be shown to reduce errors
Kiara is a nurse manager at a busy hospital in Chicago, Illinois. A medical error at the facility by one of the nurses recently resulted in the death of a patient. Kiara has been talking with the hospital administration about implementing Bar Code Medication Administration BCMA to prevent future medication errors.
The hospital administration has decided not to implement this technology. Common reasons hospital administrators may be opposed to implementing BCMA are A. Will create wasteful redundancy B. Will take too long to install C. Will require hours of training D. Will be too expensive E. Has not been shown to reduce errors.
The common reasons hospital administrators may be opposed to implementing BCMA are given below: Will create wasteful redundancy. Will be too expensive.Has not been shown to reduce errors.
Hospital administration may oppose BCMA for a variety of reasons, including cost, time, and whether it is necessary. Some may argue that it is an unnecessary expense, particularly if the hospital does not have a high number of medication errors. Hospitals that are resistant to change may also be hesitant to implement new technology, preferring to stick with traditional methods of managing patient care.
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Your patient has never heard of a Hct measurement. Explain to
your patient why and how Hct reflects a person’s iron status.
A Hct (hematocrit) measurement is a measure of the proportion of blood that is made up of red blood cells, and it can be used to determine a person's iron status.
A high Hct measurement can indicate that a person has too many red blood cells, which may be caused by an iron deficiency. Iron is a mineral that is needed to produce red blood cells, so a lack of iron can lead to anemia, a condition in which there are not enough red blood cells to carry oxygen to the body's tissues. If a person has an iron deficiency, their Hct measurement will be lower than normal. This is because their body is not producing enough red blood cells. If a person has too many red blood cells, their Hct measurement will be higher than normal.
This can be caused by a number of factors, including a genetic disorder, dehydration, or smoking. In conclusion, the Hct measurement is an important tool for assessing a person's iron status and can help doctors diagnose and treat a variety of conditions.
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Purpose of Assignment: Learning the required components of documenting a problem based subjective and objective assessment of peripheral vascular system. Identify abnormal findings. Course Competency:
The purpose of the assignment is to teach students about the necessary components for documenting a problem-based subjective and objective evaluation of the peripheral vascular system while also recognizing abnormal findings.
This competency focuses on the use of critical thinking to identify nursing interventions for individuals, families, groups, and communities with diverse healthcare needs based on their subjective and objective assessments. The students will get a detailed understanding of how to evaluate the peripheral vascular system based on their subjective and objective assessment.
Objective assessment refers to the assessment of the vascular system that is based on factual and measurable data, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and pulse rate. In comparison, subjective assessment is based on patients’ interpretations of how they feel and their perceptions of their health. The assignment will include recognizing the following abnormal findings: peripheral arterial disease (PAD), deep vein thrombosis (DVT), varicose veins, and lymphedema.Students will learn the procedures for performing physical examination, risk factors, diagnostics, and management of each abnormal finding. These competencies will help students provide optimal nursing care to patients.
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Nursing Note: Brad Jones, a 54-year-old Caucasian male, is in the emergency department reporting severe diffuse abdominal pain. He told the triage nurse that he swallowed part of a toothpick from his chicken cordon bleu dinner last night. He has profuse diaphoresis; his shirt is drenched with perspitation. While ambulating to his room, he was holding his abdomen and moaning. His vital signs are BP 128/72, HR88, RR 22, temperature of 98.8 ∘
. and SpO298% on room air. His skin is cool and moist, and his abdomen is distended. 1. What are the top three priority assessment findings or cues that must be recognized as clinically significant by the nurse? a. b. 2. What is the underlying cause/pathophysiology? a. 3. What body systems will you most thoroughly assess? a, b. 4. What is a priority nursing diagnosis? a. 5. What is the patient likely feeling right now?
1) The top three are;
Severe diffuse abdominal pain
Profuse diaphoresis and cool, moist skin
Abdominal distention
2) The underlying cause/pathophysiology in this case is likely a gastrointestinal obstruction or perforation caused by swallowing part of a toothpick.
3) Assess the Cardiovascular system
4) The nurse should assess and monitor the intensity of the pain
5) The patient is likely feeling intense pain, discomfort, and anxiety due to the severe abdominal pain
What is the diagnosis?The ingesting of a portion of a toothpick most likely resulted in a gastrointestinal obstruction or perforation, which is the case's underlying etiology and pathophysiology. The digestive tract may become damaged or obstructed as a result of the toothpick, which could result in complications and excruciating abdominal pain.
The patient's vital indicators, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and skin temperature (coolness, dampness), show that the cardiovascular system needs to be regularly monitored. It is critical to look for shock or compromised perfusion symptoms.
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List five different labs you might order for a client
presenting with a mental health concern. Explain the rationale for
ordering each lab.
As a medical professional, if you see a patient who has mental health issues, there are several laboratory tests you can order. Here are five different labs that you might order for a client presenting with a mental health concern.
Complete Blood Count (CBC)Metabolic PanelThyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)UrinalysisSerum Magnesium LevelsComplete Blood Count (CBC)This test will identify any abnormality in the number of red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets in the body.
It is useful because it can help to detect some of the underlying medical conditions, such as chronic infections, anemia, and inflammation that are related to mental health issues.Metabolic PanelThe metabolic panel test checks the blood glucose level, sodium, potassium, chloride, calcium, protein, and creatinine levels. If there is an abnormality in any of these levels, it can indicate an underlying medical condition that can affect mental health.
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" Percutaneous endoscopic feeding tubes (gastric or jejunal) do
not require surgery for placement
Select one:
True
False
True: Percutaneous endoscopic feeding tubes (gastric or jejunal) do not require surgery for placement.
Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) is a surgical procedure that involves inserting a feeding tube through the abdominal wall and into the stomach.
Endoscopy, on the other hand, is a non-invasive procedure that involves inserting a thin, flexible tube with a camera and light on the end through the mouth and into the stomach or small intestine. As a result, the percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) process has been largely replaced by percutaneous endoscopic feeding tubes (gastric or jejunal), which do not require surgery for placement.
In conclusion, Percutaneous endoscopic feeding tubes (gastric or jejunal) do not require surgery for placement.
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