The supply is clindamycin 600 mg/4-mL vial. The order is clindamycin 0.3 g IV every 6 hours for infection. Nursing drug reference: Dilute with 50 mL 0.9% NS and infuse over 15 min.
Calculate the milliliters to draw from the vial.There are different ways of finding the answer, but this is one of them:600 mg/4 mL = 150 mg/ mL. Therefore, 0.3 g = 300 mg. Then, 300 mg/150 mg/mL = 2 mL to draw from the vial.Calculate the milliliters per hour to set the IV pump.The order is clindamycin 0.3 g IV every 6 hours. We already know that 0.3 g = 300 mg. But we need to convert hours to minutes because the dilution instructions specify to infuse over 15 minutes. 6 hours x 60 minutes/hour = 360 minutes.
So, the infusion rate is 300 mg/15 minutes = 20 mL/hour.Calculate the drops per minute with a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL.The formula to calculate the flow rate in drops per minute is: (mL/hour x drop factor) / 60 minutes/hour. Plugging in the values: (20 mL/hour x 15 gtt/mL) / 60 minutes/hour = 5 gtt/minute. So, the answer is:2 mL to draw from the vial20 mL/hour to set the IV pump5 gtt/minute to set the IV pump.
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"during a shower, the female client you are caring for depends on
the support worker to perform most aspects of the task. how do you
allow the client to help care for herself?
To promote the female client's independence during a shower, the support worker should communicate, provide assistive devices, and give step-by-step instructions while allowing the client to perform tasks she is capable of. This approach includes adapting tools, offering support and encouragement, and gradually increasing her involvement in self-care tasks.
When providing care during a shower, it is important to encourage the female client to participate and empower her to care for herself as much as possible. Here are some ways to allow the client to help care for herself:
1. Communication: Establish open communication with the client to understand her preferences, abilities, and limitations. Respect her autonomy and involve her in decision-making regarding the care process.
2. Assistive devices: Provide appropriate assistive devices such as grab bars, shower chairs, or handheld showerheads to enhance the client's independence. Show her how to use these devices effectively and safely.
3. Step-by-step instructions: Break down the showering process into simple, manageable steps. Clearly explain each step and give the client the opportunity to perform tasks that she is capable of doing, such as washing her face, applying shampoo, or rinsing specific body parts.
4. Adapted tools: Modify tools or equipment to make them more accessible for the client. For example, provide a long-handled sponge or a brush with an extended handle to assist with reaching difficult areas.
5. Support and encouragement: Offer constant support and encouragement throughout the process. Praise the client for her efforts and achievements, fostering a sense of accomplishment and independence.
6. Gradual progression: Over time, gradually increase the client's involvement in self-care tasks as her abilities improve. This helps build confidence and allows for a sense of ownership over her own care.
Remember, the aim is to strike a balance between providing necessary assistance and promoting the client's independence and self-esteem.
Each client is unique, so it is essential to tailor the approach to her specific needs and capabilities.
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What kinds of errors lead to Medical malpractice lawsuits?
provide an example of malpractice and what are consequences of
malpractice
Medical malpractice lawsuits can arise from errors such as misdiagnosis, surgical mistakes, and medication errors, which result in patient harm and can have legal and financial consequences.
Medical malpractice lawsuits can occur when healthcare professionals fail to meet the expected standard of care, resulting in harm to the patient. Examples of malpractice include a surgeon performing the wrong procedure, a misdiagnosis leading to delayed or incorrect treatment, or a medication error causing adverse effects. The consequences of malpractice can be severe, both for the patient and the healthcare provider involved. Patients may suffer from additional health complications, emotional distress, and financial burdens. Healthcare providers may face legal consequences, including financial settlements, loss of professional reputation, and potential disciplinary actions from regulatory bodies.
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"Telemedicine (Telehealth)
Past, Present and Future
Pre EHR
What was the state of IT
and Telemedicine
Current State
What IT changes made it possible for
Telemedicine to become a reality
Past of IT and Telemedicine: it was limited to simple telephone consultations.
Present of IT and Telemedicine: it has enabled health care providers to offer more comprehensive telemedicine services to patients.
Telemedicine, also known as telehealth, refers to the provision of health care services and information through the use of telecommunications and electronic information technologies. Telemedicine has a long history that dates back to the invention of the telephone. Since then, technological advancements have enabled telemedicine to become an essential part of modern health care.
Below are the past, present, and future of telemedicine in relation to IT.
Past state of IT and Telemedicine:
Before the advent of electronic health records (EHR), the state of IT was poor. Most health care providers still used paper-based medical records, which made it difficult to share patient information. Health care providers faced challenges when trying to access medical records for patients who were in remote locations or had complex medical histories. Telemedicine was possible at the time, but it was limited to simple telephone consultations.
Current state of IT and Telemedicine:
The current state of IT has enabled health care providers to offer more comprehensive telemedicine services to patients. Electronic health records have made it easier for providers to share patient information, which has improved the quality of care delivered to patients. Medical devices and mobile applications have also made it possible for patients to monitor their health remotely and share their data with health care providers.
The following IT changes have made it possible for telemedicine to become a reality:
1. Development of robust telecommunication networks that enable health care providers to transmit patient information securely.
2. Increased adoption of electronic health records, which enable health care providers to share patient information easily.
3. Development of medical devices and mobile applications that enable patients to monitor their health remotely.
4. Improved access to high-speed internet, which has enabled health care providers to offer video consultations to patients.
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Aged care Facility standards ,policies and procedures in Australia ,Job role : support worker
. Question :
Responsibility of the Aged care Facility to clients when conflicts arise involving the clients’ rights
Explain this responsibility.
As an aged care facility, it is their responsibility to provide a safe and secure environment to their clients and ensure that their rights are not violated.
As such, when conflicts arise, they have to take necessary measures to resolve them in a way that protects their clients’ rights.There are several policies and procedures in Australia that are in place to protect clients’ rights. These include the Australian Charter of Aged Care Rights, which stipulates that aged care clients have the right to be treated with dignity and respect, to live without abuse and neglect, and to have their privacy and confidentiality respected.In addition to this, aged care facilities are required to have policies and procedures in place that ensure that their clients’ rights are protected.
This includes having a complaints and feedback mechanism in place that clients can use to raise their concerns and ensure that they are heard. A support worker has a critical role to play in ensuring that aged care facility clients’ rights are respected and protected. This includes being aware of the policies and procedures that are in place to protect clients’ rights and ensuring that clients are aware of these policies and procedures. The support worker should also be proactive in identifying and reporting any instances of abuse, neglect, or other violations of clients’ rights to the appropriate authorities.
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FLAG A nurse is preparing a discharge summary for a client who is postoperative following a radical mastectomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the discharge summary? Medical history Information about the client's critical pathway Emergency code status Instructions for completing dressing changes
In the discharge summary, the nurse should include the medical history of the patient, information about the client's critical pathway, and instructions for completing dressing changes.
In the discharge summary for a client postoperative following a radical mastectomy, the nurse should include the following information:
Medical history: This includes relevant medical conditions, previous surgeries, allergies, and any other pertinent information related to the client's health.
Information about the client's critical pathway: This refers to the specific care plan and timeline for the client's recovery and rehabilitation. It outlines the expected milestones and interventions to be followed.
Instructions for completing dressing changes: Since the client has undergone a radical mastectomy, wound care and dressing changes are crucial. The nurse should provide detailed instructions on how to clean the wound, apply dressings, and monitor for any signs of infection or complications.
Emergency code status may or may not be relevant to include in the discharge summary, as it typically pertains to the client's resuscitation preferences in case of a medical emergency. This information is more commonly documented in a separate document, such as an advance directive or code status form. However, if the client has specific code status preferences, it may be appropriate to include them in the discharge summary.
It's important to note that the specific requirements for a discharge summary may vary based on institutional policies and the healthcare provider's preferences.
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The physician writes an order for 80 mg Medication F direct IV now for a 24-year-old patient The drug reference states IVP: Rate: Administer at a rate of 20 mg/30 sec Pedi Administer at a maximum rate of 0.5-1 mg/kg/min What is the correct rate of administration of this ordered dose of Medication ?
The correct rate of administration of this ordered dose of Medication is 20 mg/30 sec.
Intravenous (IV) fluid refers to a type of fluid that is administered directly into a vein using a needle or catheter. It is a common medical practice used to deliver fluids, medications, or nutrients directly into the bloodstream.
To calculate the correct rate of administration of this ordered dose of Medication, first, we need to find out the dosing range for a 24-year-old patient.
Here's how we can do this:
Age of the patient = 24 years
Dosage Range: 20-60 mg
Frequency: every 4-6 hours
Next, we need to determine the administration rate for the dose ordered, which is 80 mg. According to the drug reference, the rate of administration is 20 mg/30 sec.
Therefore, the correct rate of administration of this ordered dose of Medication is 20 mg/30 sec.
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Section 4 The client has frequent episodes of coughing and choking with decreased oxygen saturation and is transferred to the hospice unit. The nurse identifies a nursing problem of "Ineffective airway clearance." Question 7 of 23 Which nursing intervention should be implemented to care for the client's mouth? Give her sips of water through a straw. Offer her an ounce of ice chips every hour. Provide mouth care daily with her bath. O Clean her mouth frequently with oral swabs.
The nursing intervention of cleaning the client's mouth frequently with oral swabs is essential to address the nursing problem of "Ineffective airway clearance.
Cleaning the client's mouth frequently with oral swabs is the appropriate nursing intervention to address the nursing problem of "Ineffective airway clearance." Frequent mouth cleaning helps maintain oral hygiene and removes any potential debris or secretions that may obstruct the airway.
By using oral swabs, the nurse can gently and effectively clean the client's mouth, reducing the risk of infection and promoting a clear airway. This intervention ensures the client's comfort, reduces the likelihood of coughing or choking episodes, and supports effective breathing.
By maintaining oral hygiene and removing potential obstructions, such as debris or secretions, the risk of airway obstruction is reduced, promoting effective breathing and minimizing episodes of coughing and choking. This intervention plays a crucial role in ensuring the client's comfort, safety, and overall well-being in the hospice unit.
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Please remember that your answers must be referenced. Please cite what source you used (website, book, journal article, etc.) Please be sure you use proper grammar, spelling, and punctuation Remember that assignments are to be handed in on time - NO EXCEPTIONS. How can a nurse help a patient manage weight? Explain for a person who is obese/morbidly obese and for a patient who is underweight.
Nurses play a crucial role in helping their patients manage their weight. In order to help an obese/morbidly obese patient manage their weight, the nurse may recommend a few things.
The nurse should educate the patient on a balanced diet that is low in calories and high in nutrients. They can provide the patient with resources to create a meal plan, and provide tips on how to track food intake. A food diary can also be beneficial, as it can help identify triggers for overeating and patterns of unhealthy eating habits. Additionally, the nurse can advise the patient to increase physical activity, whether it be through daily walks or structured exercise plans. A support group may also be helpful for the patient, as it can provide accountability and motivation.
The same approach can also be used for an underweight patient. The nurse can advise the patient on a balanced diet that is high in calories and nutrients. Frequent snacking can also help to increase caloric intake. As with the obese patient, tracking food intake can be helpful.
The nurse can advise the patient to engage in light exercise such as yoga or stretching, and gradually increase the intensity as their strength increases. Support groups can also be beneficial for underweight patients, as it can provide them with motivation and support.
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Your patient presents to the clinic with sudden-onset gross hematuria with red cell casts, hypertension, oliguria, elevated BUN, and mild to moderate proteinuria. You saw and treated him 2 weeks ago in clinic for a sore throat which was positive for Group A beta-hemolytic strep. You suspect:
Based on the patient's symptoms and recent medical history, I suspect the patient is experiencing acute glomerulonephritis.
The sudden-onset gross hematuria with red cell casts, along with the presence of hypertension, oliguria, elevated BUN (blood urea nitrogen), and mild to moderate proteinuria, are indicative of glomerular injury. The patient's recent episode of Group A beta-hemolytic strep infection is consistent with poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis (PSGN), a common cause of acute glomerulonephritis. PSGN typically occurs 1-3 weeks after a strep infection and is characterized by immune complex deposition in the glomeruli, leading to inflammation and kidney damage.
Further diagnostic tests, such as serology and kidney biopsy, may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and guide treatment.
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To help with the novel disease a new vaccine was developed. In a experimental study a group of
400 people were randomized to either the treatment group (received the vaccine) or the control group
(placebo). 200 children took the experimental medication and 10 developed the disease after 2 months.
Among the 200 who were in the control group and took the placebo, 45 developed malaria over that
same period.
Additionally, A new test was also developed to help screen for the new disease quicker. The gold
standard test was the PCR test and was used to confirm if the new rapid screening test was accurate.
When the new screening test was used it found that 22 people had a positive result and 55 had a
negative result. Of the 22 who were positive on the screener the confirmatory PCR test found that 20 of
them were true positives. Of the 55 who were negative on the screener 43 of them were confirmed to
be true negatives on the confirmatory PCR test.
YOU MUST SHOW YOUR WORK
Please calculate and interpret the following:
1. Relative risk of the new vaccine (leave as a decimal)
2. Efficacy of the new vaccine (convert to a %)
3. Sensitivity of the new screener test (convert to a %)
4. Specificity of the new screener test (convert to a %)
5. Positive Predictive Value of the new screener test (convert to a %)
6. Negative Predictive Value of the new screener test (convert to a %)
1. Relative risk of the new vaccine:Relative risk (RR) = (attack rate in the treatment group) ÷ (attack rate in the control group) = (10 ÷ 200) ÷ (45 ÷ 200) = 0.22RR = 0.22The relative risk of the new vaccine is 0.22.2.
Efficacy of the new vaccine:Efficacy = (1 - RR) × 100 = (1 - 0.22) × 100 = 78%Efficacy = 78%Therefore, the efficacy of the new vaccine is 78%.3. Sensitivity of the new screener test:Sensitivity = (true positives) ÷ (true positives + false negatives) = 20 ÷ (20 + 2) = 20 ÷ 22Sensitivity = 91%Sensitivity = 91%Thus, the sensitivity of the new screener test is 91%.4. Specificity of the new screener test:Specificity = (true negatives) ÷ (true negatives + false positives) = 43 ÷ (43 + 12) = 43 ÷ 55Specificity = 78%
Therefore, the specificity of the new screener test is 78%.5. Positive Predictive Value of the new screener test:Positive Predictive Value (PPV) = (true positives) ÷ (true positives + false positives) = 20 ÷ (20 + 12) = 20 ÷ 32Positive Predictive Value = 62.5%Therefore, the Positive Predictive Value of the new screener test is 62.5%.6.
Negative Predictive Value of the new screener test:Negative Predictive Value (NPV) = (true negatives) ÷ (true negatives + false negatives) = 43 ÷ (43 + 2) = 43 ÷ 45Negative Predictive Value = 95.6%Thus, the Negative Predictive Value of the new screener test is 95.6%.
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In Bioethics, oftentimes, there is not one correct answer. In other words, things are not black or white. When you face a situation where you don't know what the right (or ethical) thing to do is, how do you make your decision? What metrics or guidelines do you use? Give an example.
Expert Answer
When confronted with ethically ambiguous situations in bioethics, I employ a decision-making framework that involves analyzing ethical principles, consulting guidelines, seeking diverse perspectives, and utilizing case studies.
When confronted with a situation in bioethics where there is no clear-cut answer, decision-making becomes a complex task. In such instances, I rely on a framework that incorporates multiple metrics and guidelines to guide my decision-making process. This framework typically includes the following elements:
Analyzing ethical principles: I consider principles such as autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice. By evaluating how each principle applies to the situation at hand, I can gain insights into potential courses of action.
Consulting established guidelines: I refer to established codes of ethics, institutional policies, and professional guidelines relevant to the situation. These resources offer valuable perspectives and considerations to help inform my decision.
Seeking diverse perspectives: I actively engage in dialogue with individuals holding diverse viewpoints, including healthcare professionals, ethicists, patients, and affected parties. This approach allows me to consider a broad range of perspectives and weigh their implications.
Utilizing case studies and precedents: I examine relevant case studies, legal precedents, and historical ethical dilemmas to draw insights and identify potential best practices.
An example scenario could involve a medical professional who is faced with a terminally ill patient's request for assisted death. In such a case, I would consider principles such as autonomy and non-maleficence, examining legal and professional guidelines on end-of-life care.
I would engage in discussions with the patient, their family, colleagues, and ethics experts, while also examining precedents and case studies related to physician-assisted death.
Through this comprehensive approach, I aim to arrive at a well-considered decision that takes into account the various ethical dimensions of the situation.
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State the World Health Organization’s definition of health.
List the five dimensions of wellness and give an example of each.
Compare and contrast the perceptions of health that Canadians have today to those held in the early part of the 20th century.
List the top three causes of morbidity and mortality in Canada today.
What is a chronic illness? What impact do chronic illnesses have on our society today?
Discuss the structure and purpose of the health–illness continuum.
. Identify the five stages of illness and the typical responses at each stage.
Discuss the effects of illness on family members, considering changing role functions.
Identify and Discuss the effects of hospitalization on clients and their families
1. WHO defines health as complete physical, mental, and social well-being.
2. Dimensions of wellness: physical, emotional, social, intellectual, and spiritual.
3. Perception of health in Canada: broader, mental and social focus.
4. Top causes of morbidity and mortality in Canada: cardiovascular, cancer, respiratory.
5. Chronic illness: long-term condition impacting individuals and society.
1. The World Health Organization (WHO) defines health as "a state of complete physical, mental, and social well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity." This definition emphasizes that health encompasses more than just the absence of illness and includes the overall well-being of individuals in multiple dimensions.
2. The five dimensions of wellness are:
- Physical: engaging in regular exercise, eating nutritious foods, and getting enough sleep.
- Emotional: recognizing and managing one's emotions effectively, seeking support when needed.
- Social: building positive relationships, maintaining a strong support network.
- Intellectual: engaging in lifelong learning, stimulating the mind through intellectual activities.
- Spiritual: seeking meaning and purpose in life, practicing mindfulness or meditation.
3. In the early 20th century, Canadians viewed health mainly in terms of physical well-being, with limited understanding of mental health and social factors. Today, Canadians have a broader perspective, recognizing the importance of mental and social well-being alongside physical health. There is greater awareness of the impact of lifestyle, environment, and social determinants on health.
4. The top three causes of morbidity and mortality in Canada today are:
- Cardiovascular diseases (e.g., heart disease and stroke)
- Cancer (various types)
- Respiratory diseases (e.g., chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and influenza/pneumonia)
5. A chronic illness is a long-term condition that persists for an extended period, typically longer than three months. Chronic illnesses often require ongoing medical care and management, impacting individuals' daily lives and overall quality of life. They can lead to disability, reduced productivity, increased healthcare costs, and strain on healthcare systems, affecting society as a whole.
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The question is inappropriate; the correct question is:
1. State the World Health Organization’s definition of health.
2. List the five dimensions of wellness and give an example of each.
3. Compare and contrast the perceptions of health that Canadians have today to those held in the early part of the 20th century.
4. List the top three causes of morbidity and mortality in Canada today.
5. What is a chronic illness? What impact do chronic illnesses have on our society today?
Afshin lives in Alberta and is going on a month-long vacation to Halifax. While in Halifax, he can continue to use his health care coverage. Which principle of medicare does this illustrate? O Comprehensiveness 1 pts Universality Accessibility O Portability 1 pts
The principle of medicare that Afshin illustrates is portability, meaning that one can move from one province to another without losing health care coverage.
Portability is a principle of medicare that allows beneficiaries to move from one province to another without losing their health care coverage. Under the portability principle, those who have medicare coverage in one province can continue to receive it in another province while temporarily visiting or living there. In the case of Afshin, he is living in Alberta but is going on vacation to Halifax.
While he is in Halifax, he is still able to use his health care coverage. This is because his medicare coverage is portable and is valid throughout Canada. Portability is important because it ensures that Canadians can get the health care they need even if they are temporarily living or traveling outside their home province. This is especially important for people who need specialized care that is not available in their home province and need to travel to receive it.
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How should we choose who gets a transplant, supposing that there
are not enough organs for all who need them?
When there aren't enough organs for transplantation for all who need them, allocation should prioritize those with the greatest medical need and potential for long-term survival based on objective criteria like MELD or KDPI scores.
The MELD score for liver transplantation is calculated using a formula based on laboratory values for creatinine, bilirubin, and international normalized ratio (INR).
The higher the MELD score, the greater the priority for a transplant. For kidney transplantation, the KDPI calculates the likelihood of graft survival based on donor factors such as age, cause of death, and medical history.
These scores are objective measures that help determine who is in the most critical condition or who has the best chance of success.
Organ allocation is a complex and sensitive issue, and it is important to strike a balance between maximizing benefits and maintaining fairness.
Prioritizing patients based on objective criteria like MELD or KDPI scores ensures that organs go to those with the greatest medical need and potential for long-term survival.
It is crucial to regularly review and update these criteria to ensure they align with societal values and advancements in medical knowledge.
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A client on a morphine PCA pump is noted to be drowsy and lethargic with pinpoint pupls and the following vitals: puise 84
beats/minute, respiratory rate 10 breaths/minute, blood pressure 90/50 mm rig. What is the nurse's best action?
(A Discuss possible opiate dependence with the client's provider.
(B Encourage the client to turn over, and cough and take deep breaths
) Note the effectiveness of the analgesia in the clients chart.
(D Prepare to administer naloxone and provide respiratory support.
Option (D) is correct.
A client's vitals recorded are:
Pulse: 84 beats/minute
Respiratory rate: 10 breaths/minute
Blood pressure: 90/50 mm Hg
The client was on morphine PCA pump. The nurse's best action is to prepare to administer NALOXONE and provide respiratory support.
The PCA pump stands for Patient-Controlled Analgesia. It is a type of medication that is used to alleviate pain by allowing the patient to control the medication administration rate. The morphine PCA pump administers morphine through an intravenous (IV) line and is regulated by a device that can be used by the patient.
Morphine is an opioid analgesic used to relieve pain, but it may have side effects such as drowsiness, confusion, and decreased respiratory rate.
In this case, the client's pinpoint pupils and decreased respiratory rate suggest that the client may have taken too much of the morphine. As a result, the best course of action for the nurse is to prepare to administer naloxone and provide respiratory support.
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Question #1: List the factors in the physical environment which may may affect life.
Question #2: List reason why people in the middle and upper income level live longer than those of low.
Please provide reference (citation) for these answers
1. Terrain, water, climate, and soil are the factors in the physical environment that may affect life.
2. People in middle and upper-income levels live longer due to better healthcare, nutrition, and living conditions.
The physical environment has a direct impact on our daily lives. The quality of water we drink, the air we breathe, the food we eat, and the weather patterns we experience are all determined by the physical environment around us. The terrain, soil, and climate all determine which plants grow in an area and which animals can survive there. The quality of the water and soil also affect the health of animals and humans who live in the area. Pollution, deforestation, and over-fishing can also significantly impact the physical environment, leading to habitat loss and decreased biodiversity.
Income is an important determinant of health. People in higher income brackets tend to have better access to healthcare, nutritious food, and safe living conditions. They can afford to seek medical attention early and more regularly, and can also afford to purchase healthier foods.
On the other hand, people living in poverty often lack the resources to access healthcare, nutritious food, and may live in crowded and unsafe housing conditions that lead to the spread of disease. They may also engage in unhealthy behaviors due to lack of education and access to healthy alternatives. All of these factors can impact an individual's health and life expectancy.
References:
Factors Affecting Life Expectancy, Buzzle.com, August 27, 2021.
Impact of Environmental Factors on Life, National Geographic, August 27, 2021.
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SBAR for the following diagnosis- Lensectomy (pt stated
he fell)
S
B
A
R
The Situation-Background-Assessment-Recommendation (SBAR) framework is a communication tool commonly used in healthcare to provide concise and organized information about a patient's condition. In this case, the diagnosis is a lensectomy, with the patient stating that they fell.
Situation (S):
In the Situation section of the SBAR, you provide a concise statement of the current problem or diagnosis. For this scenario, the situation is a lensectomy following a fall.
Background (B):
The Background section provides relevant information about the patient's medical history, previous interventions, and any other context that contributes to their current situation. Include details such as the patient's demographics, comorbidities, and any recent events that are pertinent to the current condition.
Assessment (A):
In the Assessment section, you present the objective and subjective findings related to the patient's current condition. This includes vital signs, physical examination findings, and any reported symptoms or concerns.
Recommendation (R):
In the Recommendation section, you provide suggestions for further actions or interventions based on the situation, background, and assessment. This can include ordering additional tests, notifying a specialist, adjusting medications, or initiating immediate interventions.
Remember to tailor your SBAR report to the specific details of the case and communicate the information effectively to the appropriate healthcare professionals involved in the patient's care.
The SBAR framework ensures clear and concise communication, promoting patient safety and collaborative decision-making.
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Patient J, a man 35 years of age, was involved in a fight and sustained a large laceration to the centre of his forehead. The patient presents to the emergency department alert and oriented without significant findings other than the 10-cm laceration. However, his speech is slurred, and he readily admits to drinking 10 beers during the last few hours. The emergency department is very busy with more urgent cases, and the patient becomes impatient because of the wait. Patient J wishes to leave, but is urged by the ED staff to wait and is told that he should not drive. He is clearly lucid and states that he will not wait any longer and intends to drive himself home. Assessment was done as below: In this case the patient requires a laceration repair. The triage nurse has to determine using the priority Opinion of the patient. Why does the patient want to leave the emergency department? Does he understand the risks and benefits of the procedure? Is he competent to make this decision in his intoxicated state? Life quality. Will not having the laceration repaired significantly affect the patient's quality of life? Would an unsutured wound healing for an extended period affect the patient in his profession and render him unable to earn a living? For example, would he be unable to wear required safety equipment, such as a helmet or goggles, because of the laceration? Is the patient involved in a profession, such as acting, where a potentially disfiguring scar could affect his career? External factors. Is there any obligation on the part of the healthcare team to third parties (i.e., those who may be traveling at the same time as the patient and who may be endangered from a safety standpoint)? In their professional education, nurses and physicians are frequently taught to apply very strict standards in the determination of patient capacity or the ability to make decisions. There is no allowance for medicated patients to sign consent forms, and frequently, it is assumed that developmentally disabled, intoxicated, and critically ill patients lack the capacity for decision making. In the emergency setting, in particular, there is a bias toward intervention and treatment if there is any doubt about patient capacity. However, none of the above conditions negates the patient's ability to make responsibliie healthcare decisions. From an ethical standpoint, the patient is a capable decision maker if: The patient can understand information relevant to the decision at hand. The patient can interact and communicate with caregivers about the decision. The patient can weigh the possible alternatives. Given these guidelines, Patient J was clearly capable of refusing medical treatment, despite the feelings of the ED staff about the necessity of suturing the wound. Question: what is the known obvious problems in this case?
The known obvious problems in the case of Patient J are that he sustained a large laceration to the centre of his forehead as a result of a fight and he is heavily intoxicated with 10 beers. Also, his speech is slurred and he wishes to leave the emergency department against the advice of the ED staff without receiving treatment.
His decision puts not only his life in danger but also that of third parties who may be traveling at the same time as him and who may be endangered from a safety standpoint. In addition, Patient J is not willing to wait any longer to receive treatment and intends to drive himself home despite the fact that he is heavily intoxicated. This decision puts his life at risk as well as that of other people on the road. Patient J is also competent to make his own decisions because he understands the risks and benefits of the procedure.
However, leaving his laceration unattended to could result in unsutured wound healing for an extended period that might affect the patient's profession and render him unable to earn a living if the laceration is severe and prevents him from wearing required safety equipment, such as a helmet or goggles, because of the laceration.
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Case: 75 year old widow female lives alone with home assistance, she recently fell in bathroom and broke her right dominant hand. Her daughter lives 5 miles away. The elderly woman goes to nearby ER for care. Daughter tells Nurse she has recently been slightly confused and is losing weight. PMH: Obesity, Diabetic type 2, HTN. The daughter asked is it safe for her to be living alone? What can be done to keep her independent and safe? Meds: Hydrochloride 25mg daily Diet: regular Wears glasses Ambulates without cane. Think about safety when writing up your PICOT Question. Should she live along? Move to Assisted Nursing Home? What are the risks of falls for Elderly? Home Safety? How do we keep senior independent safely at home?
Question Components Your Question
P – Patient or Population
Describe the most important characteristics of the
patient.(e.g., age, disease/condition, gender)
I – Intervention; Prognostic Factor; Exposure
Describe the main intervention.(e.g., drug or other treatment, diagnostic/screening test)
C – Comparison (if appropriate)
Describe the main alternative being considered.(e.g., placebo, standard therapy, no treatment, the gold standard)
O – Outcome
Describe what you’re trying to accomplish, measure,
improve, affect.(e.g., reduced mortality or morbidity, improved memory, accurate and
timely diagnosis)
The well-built clinical question:
Search Strategy Development come up with search terms to help access your
research data (ie: P: Elderly , Senior, Aged)
Primary search term Synonym 1 Synonym 2
P: Elderly, female, living alone, home assistance, obesity, diabetic type 2, HTN, recent fall, broken right dominant hand, slightly confused, losing weight, daughter lives nearby, meds: Hydrochloride 25mg daily, wears glasses, ambulates without cane.
I: Home safety and assisted nursing homes.
C: Comparison of fall rates and risks between living alone at home and assisted nursing homes.
O: The improvement of safety, independent living, and overall quality of life for elderly people living alone.
The well-built clinical question is: Search terms: elderly, falls, home safety, nursing homes, and independent living.
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Pernicious anemia is a normochromic normocytic anemia related to lack of intrinsic factor True False
True. Pernicious anemia is a normochromic normocytic anemia related to lack of intrinsic factor. Pernicious anemia is a type of anemia that occurs as a result of vitamin B12 deficiency.
Vitamin B12 is required for the development of red blood cells in the body. A protein made in the stomach called intrinsic factor is needed for the absorption of vitamin B12 into the bloodstream. Pernicious anemia is caused by a lack of intrinsic factor, which makes it impossible for the body to absorb vitamin B12.
This can cause red blood cells to grow larger than usual, resulting in normochromic normocytic anemia. Some of the symptoms of pernicious anemia include weakness, fatigue, dizziness, and pale skin. Treatment for pernicious anemia usually includes regular injections of vitamin B12.
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of security risks Security drills will keep staff Which type of filing system that is best used by one person at a time? What is the final step in the filling process? What is the small per-visit fee that is collected either prior to seeing the doctor or right after the visit? Insurance claims are usually filed a business days after the date of service. An insurance claims department compares the fee the doctor charges with the benefits provided by patient's health plan which is referred to as What is known as the percentage that a patient owes after the insurance company has paid?
The personal filing system is best used to keep track of personal documents and it remains organized and efficient. Once the deductible has been met, the insurance company will begin to pay.
A personal filing system is best used by one person at a time. This type of filing system involves using individual folders or binders to store and organize documents. It is ideal for small businesses or individuals who need to keep track of personal documents.
The final step in the filing process is to properly organize and store the documents in the filing system. This involves placing the documents in the appropriate folders or binders and making sure that they are properly labeled. It is important to regularly review and update the filing system to ensure that it remains organized and efficient.
The small per-visit fee that is collected either prior to seeing the doctor or right after the visit is commonly referred to as a copayment. This is a fixed amount that patients are required to pay for each medical visit, regardless of the services provided. Copayments are typically collected by the healthcare provider at the time of service and are typically a fixed amount, such as
Insurance claims are usually filed a business day after the date of service. Insurance claim adjudication is the process of comparing the fee the doctor charges with the benefits provided by the patient's health plan.
This process involves reviewing the patient's medical history, the services provided, and the patient's insurance coverage to determine the amount that the insurance company will pay for the services. The remaining balance, if any, is the patient's responsibility.
The percentage that a patient owes after the insurance company has paid is known as the patient's deductible. This is the amount that the patient is responsible for paying out of pocket for medical services before the insurance company begins to pay.
Once the deductible has been met, the insurance company will begin to pay for a portion of the medical services, and the patient will be responsible for paying any remaining balance.
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Pharmacology type questions:
1. Methotrexate, what it is for, how does it work, what is the
relationship to Aspirin?
2. What do patients need to know about infection prevention while
taking medication
Pharmacology-type question about the relationship between Methotrexate and Aspirin, and Infection prevention.
1. Methotrexate is used to treat cancer, arthritis, and psoriasis. It works by inhibiting the production of folic acid, which is necessary for the growth of cancer cells and certain inflammatory cells. There is no direct relationship between Methotrexate and Aspirin, but both drugs can cause stomach irritation and bleeding when taken for long periods of time. Therefore, it is important to use caution when taking both medications together.
2. Patients taking medication should take steps to prevent infection, such as washing their hands frequently, avoiding contact with sick people, and keeping their environment clean. It is also important to follow any specific instructions given by the healthcare provider regarding the medication, such as taking it with food or avoiding certain foods or activities. Patients should also inform their healthcare provider if they experience any signs of infection, such as fever, cough, or sore throat so that appropriate treatment can be provided. Therefore both are Pharmacology type questions.
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(estapé t. cancer in the elderly: challenges and barriers. asia pac j oncol nurs. 2018 jan-mar;5(1):40-42. doi: 10.4103/apjon.apjon 52 17. pmid: 29379832; pmcid: pmc5763438.)
The goal is to ensure that elderly cancer patients receive the best possible care and support throughout their treatment journey.
Cancer is a condition that occurs when cells in the body start to grow abnormally, leading to the development of tumors or abnormal growths. Elderly people are particularly susceptible to cancer, and there are several challenges and barriers that they face when it comes to diagnosis and treatment.
Some of the challenges include limited access to care, difficulty in accessing medical facilities, and a lack of information and awareness about cancer in the elderly population. There are also challenges associated with managing the side effects of cancer treatments, such as nausea, fatigue, and pain.
To address these challenges, it is important to provide comprehensive care for elderly cancer patients that takes into account their unique needs and circumstances.
This can involve providing support services such as transportation and home health care, as well as educational resources to help patients and their families better understand the condition and the treatment options available.
It is also important to develop new approaches to cancer treatment that are tailored to the needs of elderly patients, taking into account factors such as age, medical history, and overall health status.
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T F A client with dementia is in danger of having accidents because the client does not recognize safety hazards.
The statement is True . A client with dementia is in danger of having accidents because the client does not recognize safety hazards.
Dementia is a neurocognitive disorder that affects the brain's ability to work correctly, resulting in memory loss, cognitive impairment, behavioral changes, and a variety of other symptoms. The client with dementia's judgment and ability to perform daily tasks can be impaired due to the damage to their brain.
The care giver must ensure that the client's living environment is safe, secure, and free of any dangers that may result in accidents. They must also ensure that the client's physical needs are met, such as proper nutrition, hydration, and assistance with personal hygiene. Additionally, the caregiver must establish a safe routine and limit activities that could be hazardous. In short, a client with dementia is in danger of having accidents because the client does not recognize safety hazards.
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* Massage Therapy Course
*Make a SOAP note for this case study.
* what condition on this case study.
( condition topic:Tendonitis, Medial/ Lateral Epicondylitis, Shin splints/periostitis)
Your client is 25 years old and suffering from an injury that happened during the past week. He fell from 10 feet ladder and landed on the lateral part of his right shoulder which has caused him severe and loss of movement. His shoulders are still severely inflamed.Shoulders are protracted forward from poor posture and tendons blocked under the acromiom. He is now suffering from continuous compression which was led to inflammation and irritation. Prior to his accident he can move his arms above his head with no pain and able to do the things he wants to do like basketball and volleyball. He has always worked as a painter for over 5 years constantly reaching above his head. Post injury he has pain when raising the arm forward,sideways, or above shoulder height, usually a 6-7/10 pain. There is a burning sensation and feels weakness when lifting his arm and objects or pushing a door open. Strength is grade 1 on a strength scale. He also positive during the empty can test and full can test. He has complained on not being able to sleep properly due to disrupted sleep caused by severe pain. He has referred pain into his upper arms and back of his elbows.
We can see here that making a SOAP note for this case study, we have:
Subjective:
The client, a 25-year-old individual, experienced a fall from a 10-foot ladder last week, resulting in a significant injury to the lateral part of their right shoulder. The client reports severe pain and limited range of motion.
What is case study?A case study is a detailed and in-depth analysis of a specific individual, group, event, or situation. It is a research method used in various fields, including medicine, psychology, business, education, and social sciences.
Objective:
Severe inflammation observed in the shoulders
Limited movement and protraction of shoulders
Pain reported during forward, sideways, and overhead arm movements (6-7/10 on pain scale)
Assessment:
Based on the client's history and examination, the following conditions are suspected:
Tendonitis of the shoulderMedial/Lateral EpicondylitisShin splints/periostitisPlan:
Manage pain and inflammation:
Prescribe nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) for pain relief.Apply ice packs to the affected area for 15-20 minutes, several times a day.Advise the client to rest the injured shoulder and avoid activities that exacerbate the pain.Learn more about case study on https://brainly.com/question/6434488
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SOAP note for the given case study
Subjective: The client is 25 years old and has an injury that occurred in the past week. He fell from a ladder of 10 feet and landed on the lateral part of his right shoulder. The shoulders are still severely inflamed and protracted forward from poor posture. Prior to his injury, he could move his arms above his head with no pain and able to do the things he wants to do like basketball and volleyball. Post injury he has pain when raising the arm forward, sideways, or above shoulder height, usually a 6-7/10 pain. There is a burning sensation and feels weakness when lifting his arm and objects or pushing a door open. The client has referred pain into his upper arms and back of his elbows. He has also complained of disrupted sleep caused by severe pain.
Objective: Shoulders are protracted forward from poor posture and tendons blocked under the acromion. He is now suffering from continuous compression which was led to inflammation and irritation. He is positive during the empty can test and full can test. His strength is grade 1 on a strength scale.
Assessment: The client has suffered an injury from the fall that has led to inflammation and irritation of his shoulder and the surrounding muscles. He is also suffering from Tendonitis.
Diagnosis: Tendonitis Plan: The client will undergo a massage therapy course for the relief of pain and inflammation. The course will consist of a Swedish massage, trigger point therapy, and deep tissue massage. These therapies will be used to address the pain, reduce the inflammation, and relax the muscles. A follow-up appointment will be made in one week to monitor the progress. The client will also be advised to rest and avoid activities that exacerbate the condition, ice the affected area and also avoid lifting heavy objects, repetitive arm movement and vibration. A referral will also be made to the client's physician for further evaluation and treatment of his condition.
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You might see carpopedal spasm/Trousseau sign or Chvostek sign in a patient who has: a. Hypercalcemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hypermagnesemia d. Hypokalemia e. Acidosis
Carpopedal spasm or Trousseau sign and Chvostek sign are associated with hypocalcemia, specifically low levels of ionized calcium in the blood. These signs can occur due to a variety of conditions, including parathyroid disorders, renal failure, vitamin D deficiency, and malabsorption syndromes.
Carpopedal spasm or Trousseau sign and Chvostek sign are both manifestations associated with hypocalcemia, which is characterized by low levels of ionized calcium in the blood.
Hypocalcemia can occur due to various reasons, including parathyroid disorders (such as hypoparathyroidism or surgical removal of the parathyroid glands), renal failure, vitamin D deficiency, and malabsorption syndromes.
Carpopedal spasm or Trousseau sign is observed when the blood flow to the forearm is temporarily stopped by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for a few minutes. If the patient develops carpopedal spasm (flexion of the wrist and metacarpophalangeal joints, with extension of the interphalangeal joints), it indicates the presence of latent tetany, which is a characteristic of hypocalcemia.
Chvostek sign, on the other hand, is elicited by tapping the facial nerve just anterior to the earlobe, resulting in an abnormal facial muscle contraction, typically in the form of twitching of the nose, lips, or cheek. This sign is also indicative of hypocalcemia.
Both carpopedal spasm/Trousseau sign and Chvostek sign serve as clinical indicators of hypocalcemia and can aid in the diagnosis and management of the underlying cause.
When these signs are observed, further evaluation and laboratory testing are necessary to determine the specific etiology and appropriate treatment for the patient.
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Patient ED is admitted for labor induction due to SOM, previous C-section x1, who
desires TOLAC. Oxytocin order is as follows: Oxytocin 2 mu/min q 30mins, max dose of
20 mu/min. Pre-mix Oxytocin bag is 30 Units in 500ml NS. What would be the initial
rate of your Oxytocin drip? ml/hr
The initial rate of the Oxytocin drip would be 24 ml/hr. We have to calculate the dosage available30 Units in 500ml NS or 60 mu in 1000ml NS and rate to infuse using the available dosage.
Step 1: Determine the dosage ordered
Oxytocin 2 mu/min q 30mins, max dose of 20 mu/min
Step 2: Calculate the dosage available30 Units in 500ml NS or 60 mu in 1000ml NS (concentration of 60 mu/ml)Step 3: Determine the rate to infuse using the available dosage
Dosage ordered (2 mu/min) x 60 min
= 120 mu/hour
Infusion rate = Dosage ordered / Concentration
Infusion rate = 120 mu/hour / 60 mu/ml
= 2 ml/hour
Step 4: Verify if the infusion rate does not exceed the maximum dosage ordered
The maximum dose allowed is 20 mu/min x 60 min
= 1200 mu/hour
Infusion rate of 120 mu/hour is less than the maximum dosage ordered, so it is within the safe range.
The initial rate of the Oxytocin drip is 2 ml/hour or 24 ml/hr.
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A claims examiner employed by third-party payer reviews health-related claims to determine weather the charges are reasonable, along with
A claims examiner employed by third-party payer reviews health-related claims to determine whether the charges are reasonable, along with the medical necessity of the services rendered.
The role of the claims examiner, who is employed by a third-party payer, is to evaluate healthcare claims to see if they are valid and worth the money that the payer is paying. They are responsible for determining whether the costs are appropriate and in accordance with the patient's insurance coverage.
The claims examiner examines the medical records to determine whether the services given were medically required and rendered. They also review whether the services received were appropriate and consistent with the patient's medical history.The role of the claims examiner also includes verifying the diagnosis of the patient to ensure that the treatments given were necessary and justified.
Additionally, they may need to validate the services given by a health care provider to ensure that it is consistent with the industry's accepted standard of care.To summarize, the claims examiner's primary role is to assess healthcare claims to determine if the charges are reasonable and the services rendered were medically necessary.
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What is peptic ulcer disease and identify related risk factors.
What is H. Pylori and how is this treated?
What are symptoms of H. Pylori infection?
What is GERD? What are the related risk factors?
What are symptoms of GERD and how it treated?
What lifestyle changes are necessary for patient teaching related to PUD or GERD management?
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is characterized by open sores in the stomach or upper part of the small intestine. H. pylori infection and NSAID use are common risk factors. H. pylori is treated with antibiotics and acid-suppressing medications.
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is a condition characterized by the formation of open sores in the lining of the stomach or the upper part of the small intestine. Risk factors for PUD include infection with Helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) bacteria, long-term use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), smoking, excessive alcohol consumption, and stress.
H. pylori is a bacterium that can infect the stomach lining and is a common cause of peptic ulcers.
Treatment for H. pylori infection typically involves a combination of antibiotics (such as amoxicillin, clarithromycin, or metronidazole) and acid-suppressing medications (like proton pump inhibitors or H2 receptor blockers). This eradicates the bacteria and allows the ulcers to heal.
Symptoms of H. pylori infection can include abdominal pain, bloating, nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, and unintentional weight loss.
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a chronic condition where stomach acid and other contents flow back into the esophagus, leading to irritation and inflammation. Risk factors for GERD include obesity, hiatal hernia, pregnancy, smoking, and certain medications.
Common symptoms of GERD include heartburn, regurgitation of stomach acid into the mouth, chest pain, difficulty swallowing, and chronic cough.
Treatment options for GERD include lifestyle modifications (such as weight loss, avoiding trigger foods, and elevating the head of the bed) and medications that reduce stomach acid production or help strengthen the lower esophageal sphincter.
Patient teaching related to PUD or GERD management should emphasize the importance of dietary and lifestyle changes, such as maintaining a healthy weight, avoiding trigger foods (like caffeine, spicy foods, and acidic foods), quitting smoking, limiting alcohol consumption, eating smaller meals, and avoiding lying down immediately after eating.
Compliance with prescribed medications and regular follow-up appointments with a healthcare provider is also crucial for effective management of these conditions.
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write a paragraph about each of the 11 body systems explaining
what it is, how it works, and its functions/ capabilities
The body is a complex machine that has 11 different body systems. Each of these body systems works together to keep the body running efficiently. In this essay, I will be explaining each of the 11 body systems, how they work and their functions/capabilities.
1. The digestive system: This system is responsible for breaking down food into nutrients that can be absorbed by the body. It begins in the mouth, where food is chewed and mixed with saliva, and ends in the intestines, where nutrients are absorbed. The digestive system also eliminates waste from the body.
2. The respiratory system: This system is responsible for taking in oxygen and expelling carbon dioxide. Oxygen is taken in through the nose or mouth and travels through the trachea to the lungs. The lungs then exchange oxygen for carbon dioxide and exhale it out.
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